Marriage It discriminates against us, when we are only being ourselves.
Nathan Cesal July 30, at 3: If banning same-sex marriage is loving your neighbor, then you should also love your neighbor and ban divorce and ban remarriages. Reply Denny Burk July 30, at 7: Reply Nathan Cesal July 30, at 1: What do you do within your church regarding these issues?
These exact same things and probably more would be at your disposal if same-sex marriage were legalized. Reply David Thomas July 30, at 3: Reply Don Johnson July 30, at 4: It would not have been for any matter, but rather because he could figure out that Mary had apparently committed adultery since she was pregnant and therefore violated the betrothal covenant they had, but he was going to use this method as it did not humiliate Mary.
And Joseph is called righteous in the same verse, so it was not wrong for him to plan to do this. But the point of all this is that is can be a righteous choice to get a no-fault divorce, as long as the actual reason for the divorce is not just anything, but rather a Biblical reason.
Reply Jason Ruzek July 30, at 6: You know what the Hebrew says, Don, no matter what Hillel or the Sadducces were saying. This is really strange. His righteousness could be just as much his tact and kindness in handling it as he did.
You surely know this, this interpretation you have offered is irresponsible. Reply Don Johnson July 31, at It would be an accurate deduction except for a miracle, which it took an angel to explain to Joseph. The Pharisees has 2 basic schools, Hillel and Shammai, when seeking a divorce one chose 3 judges, knowing which school they belonged to.
So if you chose 3 Hillelite judges, you knew ahead of time how they understood Deu And yes, we know that Jesus said that Hillel was wrong in his understanding, but that was in the future, the choice of Joseph was what it was.
But Joseph did not want to shame Mary, good for him. And the Bible commends him also. The point, which can be lost and so I am stating it explicitly, is that there is a difference between USING a no fault divorce to avoid shaming another and divorcing for the reason of no fault.
In the former case, the reason for divorce can be Biblical adultery, abuse, neglect but there is no requirement to make any of this public.
Therefore a no fault divorce can be used in a righteous manner. Jason Ruzek July 31, at Reply Don Johnson July 31, at 4: Before no fault divorces becames law, one spouse would need to meet whatever criteria the STATE decided so that the divorce could happen.
So a husband seeking to divorce his wife sometimes had to APPEAR to commit adultery, even if he did not and would never think of doing so. It was all very wacky. They should never have been IN this business in the first place. They should never have been in the marriage defining business, this was their fundamental mistake.
Then any group can declare that some of those contracts will be seen as a marriage by that group and most importantly, some others will NOT be seen as a marriage.
So a church can bless a union that it agrees with and decline to bless another. Reply Jason Ruzek July 31, at 5: Reply Don Johnson August 2, at 2: Joseph saw what he assumed was a fault sin in Mary, and it would have been except for a miracle, so his assumption was reasonable.
He could have planned to go the Shammai route and shamed Mary or he could have planned to go the Hillel route and decline to shame Mary. He did not want to shame her and I think this is a good thing. Marriage is intended by God to be a life-long covenant, but that does not mean that one party or the other cannot get a divorce if the other party breaks a covenant vow.
Breaking a covenant vow allows the other party to decide whether the covenant should still be considered in force or not. This is basic Bible and God even divorced Israel using this principles, see Jer 3:Gay Marriage Speech Essay Gay Marriage 1. Introduction A.
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